Where the Word of God came from
"A good man out of the good treasure of his heart brings forth good and an evil man out of the evil treasure of his heart brings forth evil; for out of the abundance of the heart, the mouth speaks."
(Luke 6:45)
In the New Testament, we find on the one hand clear statements about the identity of Jesus Christ as the Word of God (John 1:14), as well as statements from Jesus Christ about himself that allow the conclusion, that he himself is that mighty Word of God in the form of flesh. The obviously platonic influenced church father and defining contributor to the trinitarian dogma Origen mocked the "general run of Christians" in his commentary on the gospel of John, book I chapter 23, about the equation of Jesus Christ and the spoken Word of God, by elevating himself intellectually and declaring this view as "nothing but stupidity". He even mentions the bible verse that these ordinary Christians in his days (185 - 254 a.D.) mostly employed. [1]
"My heart has produced a good Word."
(Psalm 45:1a)
Sadly, this highly biblical teaching has been turned into an absurdity and pushed out of the way by the council of Nicea, so that the bible student will still arrive at such conclusions by bible study, but not by hearing a sermon preached on it in ordinary church buildings, by Free Evangelicals or non-denominational groups. It is a concept that can hardly be topped in simplicity, namely that our Lord Jesus Christ himself is that spoken and flesh-become Word of God. A literal interpretation of the New and Old Testament hardly leave another option since the Word of God is the expression of God's glory and in fleshly form the engraving of God's outstanding foundation. (see Hebrews 1:3 interlinear with a lexicon analysis of the words https://biblehub.com/interlinear/hebrews/1-3.htm ) Words come from the heart. This revealing statement deserves some analysis, and whilst doing so we need to take a look at the Old Testament since it has a lot to say about words, thoughts and utterances. This will help us understand where Jesus Christ came from, who he is, and whose "visible becoming" he constitutes. Let me quote 4 bible verses to begin with.
"But He answered and said, It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.’"
(Matthew 4:4)
"I came out of the Father and have come into the world."
(John 16:28a)
For the bread of God is He who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world. . I am the living bread which came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread that I shall give is My flesh, which I shall give for the life of the world.
(John 6:33.51)
Let me sum up these statements. Jesus Christ in his entirety is of heavenly origin. This includes the flesh by the fact that whatever became flesh was in heaven as the spiritual Word of God prior to the conception in the womb and came out of the Father himself. The origin of Jesus Christ in the innermost parts of the Father is stated in this Greek text:
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/16-28.htm
The NKJV reads:
"I came forth from the Father and have come into the world. Again, I leave the world and go to the Father."
(John 16:28)
In the definition of G1831 "exerchomai" which is translated as "coming forth from", Thayer's states under 5eβ:
"to come forth equivalent to be emitted, as from the heart, the mouth, etc.: Matthew 15:18; James 3:10; (cf. ῤομφαία ἐκ τοῦ στόματος, Revelation 19:21 G L T Tr WH); equivalent to to flow forth from the body: John 19:34; equivalent to to emanate, issue"
The word "ek" is defined as "out of the depth of the source with the impact on the origin". This verse is a solid proof text for Jesus Christ having come out of the Father himself. At the same time it proves the theory of "Eternal Sonship" wrong, a distinct person from "God the Father". There are more verses of similar expression in John 8:42, 13:3 and 16:27.30.
Further, the one having come from heaven is the exact same as the one that became flesh and the one that was born. There was no "nature added" or anything pre-fashioned. The one conceived equals the one circumsized.
"And when eight days were completed for the circumcision of the Child, His name was called Jesus , the name given by the angel before He was conceived in the womb."
(Luke 2:21)
The flesh was not drawn from another source. A "becoming" took place. Verse 51 of John 6 thus is a pivot point to declare the flesh of Jesus Christ as "heavenly" or "celestial" flesh. It is obvious that this merely states that there is no earthly origin from the dust in his flesh. Whatever was his flesh was there because the Word of God literally became flesh in the womb, however originated in the heavens alone. This is contrasted in two other bible verses.
"The first man (Adam) out of the earth is dust; the second man is (the Lord) out of heaven."
(1. Corinthians 15:47 - manuscript differences can be seen here: https://greekcntr.org/collation/index.htm )
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_corinthians/15-47.htm
The contrast in this first verse is very sharp. The first Adam is out of the earth (Strong's number G1093 "ge" like in "geography" - referring to the physical planet earth), he is dust. The second man is out of heaven. We know what he is - he is "Word".
"And he said to them: 'You are all out of the things below, I am out of the things above. You are all out of this world, I am not out of this world.' "
(John 8:23 - interlinear translation)
The mentioned "world" here is not G1093 "ge", but G2889 "kosmos", an orderly arrangement, specifically that of the inhabitants of the world. Jesus Christ confessed that he has no part in this mankind from below. He comes from heaven in his entirety, from whence he came down and became flesh in the process of conception. This is a very clear bible teaching. Let us now move forward and further see where words come from. It will show us, where the Word of God comes from. We all know this verse:
"In the beginning was the Word. And the Word was with (towards) God. And God was the Word."
(Johannes 1:1)
The old English Wycliffe bible translates "and the Word was at God". This is given to the greek expression "pros ton Theon" - it suggests an orientation towards the object "God". I am advising the reader to do a Word search with the words "pros ton Theon" (maybe here: https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=3056+4314+2316&t=KJV#s=s_primary_0_1) and further for "egeneto Logos Kyrion pros" in the Septuagint (try this: https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=3056+4314+2962+1096&t=LXX#s=s_primary_0_1 ) in order to see that "pros ton Theon" actually does mean a directive towards God and that God had sent his word toward prophets in the old testament (focus on the instances in Jeremiah and Ezekiel when you do the LXX search)
"And the Word of the Lord came to me saying."
(Ezekiel 18:1)
Some theologians might argue that John 1:1 has "eimi pros" so G1510 G4314, which would mean "existing next to". This can be true when "persons" are with someone (1. Thessalonians 3:4 and 2. Thessalonians 2:5 for example). However, in the LXX there is also an example where Laban "is" a certain way "towards" Jacob and this is also expressed as "eimi pros". You can find it using the apostolic bible polyglot. The Brenton Septuagint translates it:
"And Jacob saw the countenance of Laban, and behold it was (G1510 "en") not toward (G4314 pros) him as before."
(Genesis 31:2 Brenton LXX)
The word is a spiritual component of a person that can be directed to oneself and towards others. What I now proved is that "en pros" like in "Ho Logos en pros ton Theon" (The Word was with God) very well means that a Word "is", in the sense of "being", FACTUALLY, not by location, "towards" someone - here in John 1:1 "towards God". And the logical consequence is that "God was the Word" because you cannot separate the speaker from the Word. The Word originates in the speaker, in his heart to be precise.
"As the face of man is reflected in the water, so is the heart of man reflected in himself."
(Proverbs 27:19)
We find God speaking in his heart in the Old Testament:
"... and God said in his heart..." or "...and God said in considering..."
(Genesis 8:21 masoretic / greek)
There is another LXX passage with "eimi pros" in Genesis 31:5:
"And he said to them, I see the face of your father, that it is not toward me as before, but the God of my father was with me. "
(Genesis 31:5)
There is no reason found in John 1:1 to suppose multiple persons inside an impersonal "God essence". rather, it is a misleading distraction from a very easily verifiable fact that is very consistent with the scriptures and simple reasoning. The devil tricked the world with his "multiple personality God" that he installed by arrogant philosophers like Origen that mocked those Christians that obviously constituted the "general run" of them and were aware of these things. Nowadays again, preach this truth and get ready to be socially isolated, branded as a dangerous heretic that attempts to pull sheep from "the flock". You see, everything is upside down in the last days because we are dealing with the whore of Babylon, Circe, the church system from Rome.
Back to God's Word. It is not just his self reflection, but it actually is the brightness of his glory and the engraving of his personality in flesh. If you recall God repenting of things in the Old Testament, God considering things in his heart, his soul weeping in secret places, all that is actually his innermost being: his Word. God gave every man his (man's) own inner mirror image as his self awareness, his consciousness. God's innermost heart was not fully revealed in the Old Testament. It took the Son of God to reveal it because it actually is him in his fullness - touched and seen, not just a marian flesh avatar that was remote controlled by a "God person distinct from the Father".
I want to invite the reader to forget the dogmas he got bombarded with by reading books, commentators, hearing preachers. After all, these men repeat very ancient distortions of the bible that were brought about by pagan greek philosophers. Consider that Jesus Christ and the apostle Paul had a minority view. Figuring out truth is a personal undertaking and all I do here is to show you that there in fact are very good reasons to abandon the church dogmas from a scriptual standpoint. You will have to weed through this by yourself essentially.
My insight is the fact that Jesus Christ is much greater than I thought him to be. He was a real and complete man in all his humility. He had no memory of some "pre-incarnate" state as "God the Son", but rather he grew in wisdom and favor with God and men. God had turned his heart inside out and brought forth a new man out of himself: the Son of God, that demonstrably had a soul by himself.
"And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men."
(Luke 2:52)
"Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great, and He shall divide the spoil with the strong, because He poured out His soul unto death."
(Isaiah 53:12a)
“Behold! My Servant whom I uphold, my Elect One in whom my soul delights!"
(Isaiah 42:1)
"He, foreseeing this, spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that His soul was not left in Hades, nor did His flesh see corruption."
(Acts 2:31)
I am giving you these verses for a reason. You will learn that words are an expression of the soul. If God brought forth a human Son out of the depth of his Holy Spirit, which is where the soul resides, and if the man Jesus Christ had his own soul, then there is absolutely no debate about the fact that Jesus Christ had all of his origin inside God and that further God did procreate himself as a man and not as a hypostatic union. The best term I can think of is "soul split". As Levi was in the loins of Abraham (Hebrews 7), so Jesus Christ was in the loins of God. That is the significant distinction between the first and the last Adam: The first Adam was named a "son of God" in Luke 3:38. He however was created, made of dust. The second Adam, Jesus Christ, was not "made", but he was the only begotten Son of God, out of heaven. This makes him have an eternal pre-existence and also shows that he was a full man once he was begotten. It guards the teaching of the personal singularity of God in Old and New Testament times, as well as the full and complete existence of God as a man. Speaking of a "God-Christ" is misleading and goes against the book of Hebrews chapter 2. Jesus Christ has to be a full man like us, except for his sharing of our sinful flesh. The hypostatic union creates a straw man that denies that Jesus Christ was a man, claiming he was "fully God and fully man", where the "God part" never mixed, mingled or changed into the man part. God never became anything other than God sharing personality with a man that had a soul from the virgin. This is not becoming likened to us in a similar manner as Hebrews 2:14 states. The straw man that the hypostatic union creates seeks to label anyone disagreeing a false teacher by using such terms as "you deny his full humanity" or "you deny his full deity". Whereas they themselves deny that God ever became a man. This is satanic trickery. We have to expose this diabolic attempt to deny that Jesus Christ came in flesh as the prime and utmost blasphemy that the church system has ever produced. The hypostatic union dogma of a divided messiah essentially is the heart of the antichrist teaching. This cannot be repeated often enough because it denies that God had a Son of Man and creates a fictitious "God the Son", born in eternity past in heaven as a female deity called Sophia that fell to kenoma from pleroma. All these teachings are gnostic and pagan to the core. Jesus is the Old Testament uni-personal God that happened to bring forth a Son. The church folks seek to create an alternate god named "god of mischief" - jehovah or yahweh "he falls", which are not true explanations of the tetragrammaton YWHW. I will get to that in another article. There is now a creation of 3 persons named yahweh or jehovah where one somehow became Jesus. This is false. There is ONE God named Jesus that brought forth a Son who inherited everything from the Father, including the name. (Hebrews 1:4, John 17:6.11.12.26) If you do not like this light, you should consider closing your eyes again and going back to the brainwashing facility called "church". If you like this light, keep reading.
Look at Psalms 33:
For the Word of the Lord is right, and all His work is done in truth. By the Word of the Lord the heavens were made, and all the host of them by the breath of His mouth. For He spoke, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast. The counsel of the Lord stands forever, the plans of His heart to all generations.
(Psalms 33:4.6.9.11)
These are not news that I am announcing to the reader, reminding him that God created by speaking as can be seen in Genesis 1. It is an easy to understand fact of the bible (whether Origen calls it stupidity or not). God spoke, the Word executed. And Jeremiah 1:12 actually tells us that the speaker himself is the executor. All this confirms in harmony what I already wrote. Let us look at the heart, where the Word came from. A look into the Septuagint yields the following.
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/psalms/33.htm
God has a "Word fabric" in his heart which is called "legismoi", which is derived from the Word "Logos" that is in John 1:1. Since we knew beforehand that Words come from the heart, this is not big news. The chapter however connects words to thoughts. Thoughts need access to "something" in order to become Words. A transitioning takes place. In Isaiah 59:13 of the Hebrew Masoretic Text, we read:
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/isaiah/59-13.htm
The word H1697 is "dabar". Dabar is the Greek "Logos", the "Word". The Utterance here comes from the heart as well. Let us note that the Word is "conceived", expressed by "harah" H2029. This is the same word that is being used when a woman conceives seed from a man. The heart conceives the word, which is a seed. It is then born from the mouth and has some quite astonishing powers.
"Death and Life are in the power of the tongue."
(Proverbs 18:21a)
The process of conception requires cultivating the Spirit. This is found for example in Psalms 77:6 in the LXX (to till means to cultivate):
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/psalms/77.htm
"And I meditated by night with my heart and conversed and tilled my Spirit."
(Psalm 77:6 LXX - free)
Let us focus on Hebrew poetry. A thing is stated similarly twice. The "meditating by night" somehow involves "cultivating the Spirit". The Spirit always carries the word - as the voice. This "meditation" is not some eastern form of it, but rather the "pondering". [2] The "pondering" is also mentioned in Psalms 33:11 and in the following verse:
"...a meditation comes forth from his (God's) mouth."
(Job 37:2 LXX - free)
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/job/37.htm
This verse beautifully connects the "mediation" with the above mentioned "exiting of the word from the mouth" by using "exerchomai ek" as John 16:28a does. This meditated word is further a product if you will of the cultivating of the Spirit, bringing the word forth from the soul.
"My lips shall not speak lawlessness, my soul shall not meditate on wrong doing."
(Job 27:4 LXX - free)
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/job/27.htm
Again, we are dealing with Hebrew poetry: The speaking lips express the meditation form the soul. We can finish off this study of the origin of Jesus Christ- the Word of God. He is the revelation of the hidden soul of the uni-personal God of the Old Testament. Everything you saw, touched and heard from Jesus Christ as a man is the expression of the Father as the Son. God has revealed himself in a complete manner and not in some fictitious and mysterious hypostatic union (if you do not believe this to be mystic, look at the icons of the hypostatic union monster, a two faced messiah that is beyond human and beyond divine. He constitutes the superman of Greek mythology that came to make human divine and poses as a "God essence" moving around a flesh avatar in a personal union. Rather, Jesus Christ is the expression of the one soul of God as a Man with his unique own soul. The Father became visible and touchable as the Son.
"I have sworn by Myself;
The Word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness,
And shall not return,
That to Me every knee shall bow,
Every tongue shall take an oath."
(Isaiah 45:23)
"For to this end Christ died and rose and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living. But why do you judge your brother? Or why do you show contempt for your brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written: “As I live, says the Lord, every knee shall bow to Me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” So then each of us shall give account of himself to God."
(Romans 14:9-12)
[1] I wonder at the stupidity of the general run of Christians in this matter. I do not mince matters; it is nothing but stupidity... What is the Son of God when called the Word? The passage they employ most is that in the Psalms, My heart has produced a good Word; and they imagine the Son of God to be the utterance of the Father deposited, as it were, in syllables, and accordingly they do not allow Him, if we examine them farther, any independent hypostasis, nor are they clear about His essence. (Origen, commentary of John, I ch. 23)
[2] μελετάω, μελέτω; 1 aorist ἐμελέτησα; (from μελέτη care, practice); especially frequent in Greek writings from Sophocles and Thucydides down; the Sept. chiefly for הָגָה; to care for, attend to carefully, practise: τί, 1 Timothy 4:15 (R. V. be diligent in); to meditate equivalent to to devise, contrive: Acts 4:25 from Psalm 2:1; used by the Greeks of the meditative pondering and the practice of orators and rhetoricians.
